Hi,

is it possible to use a generic IP tunnel via ipnat?

The situation is as follows:

A---ether---B---isdn---ISP---rest_of_the_internet
`-----v-----'
   at home

B does NAT for my home network, I get only one IPv4
address from my ISP (dynamically).

I have not succeeded to use a tunnel to freenet6 neither
from host A (which is behind the NAT "router") nor from
host B.

I have tried the following variants.

At host B:
	gifconfig gif0 inet s.s.s.s d.d.d.d
	ifconfig gif0 inet6 S:S:S:S D:D:D:D prefixlen 127 up
	route add -inet6 default S:S:S:S
	ping6 S:S:S:S
	ping6 D:D:D:D

or, alternatively, at host A:
	gifconfig gif0 inet l.l.l.l d.d.d.d
	ifconfig gif0 inet6 S:S:S:S D:D:D:D prefixlen 127 up
	route add -inet6 default S:S:S:S
	ping6 S:S:S:S
	ping6 D:D:D:D

s.s.s.s: the IPv4 address assigned by my ISP
d.d.d.d: the freenet6 IPv4 destination address
l.l.l.l: the local IPv4 address of host A's ethernet interface
S:S:S:S: the freenet6 IPv6 source address
D:D:D:D: the freenet6 IPv6 destination address

The "ping6 S:S:S:S" succeeds, but iaccording to tcpdump on host B's
ISDN interface, "ping6 D:D:D:D" only sends out the encapsulated
echo requests without receiving any reply (in both cases). In the
first case, the tunnel should not be affected by the NAT, right?

    Ingolf
-- 

Ingolf Koch     ICQ#60829470     Beste Kneipe in Jena-Ost
PGP: 0x7B3B5661  213C 828E 0C92 16B5  05D0 4D5B A324 EC04